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Author:  Wayan Jack [ Sat Jul 04, 2020 8:53 am ]

Can a person have prostatitis when their only (new) symptom is bad to sometimes unbearable pain in the perineum area?

HISTORY: For over 20 years, starting at age 40, I have had a frequent urination problem, with no other symptoms at all, and a normal prostate size. No sign of BPH. And because I never experienced pain in my prostate area during that entire time, I assume the frequent urination was not caused by prostatitis. The frequent urination was always with me, never came and went.

Then, about 6-7 months ago, after 20 years of living fine with frequent urination, I did start to get a mild pain in my perineum area up to the base of my penis. That pain started getting worse over the last few months to the point where it was very bad some days. But no other symptoms developed, just this pain. Igt i so bad I have resorted to taking Tramadol on bad days, and I really don't want to be doing that.

So again, I ask: Can I have developed prostatitis when my only (new) symptom is bad to often unbearable pain in the perineum area?

Many thanks everyone.

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